Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 02.07.2025 17:42
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
What is the best way to end a relationship with someone who has future plans with you?
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Virginia woman arrested in connection with Netflix star's hit-and-run death - NBC News
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.